Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 06:09
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What can you do if you are a full-grown adult, but never experienced being a child?
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Is it possible to become homeless after being released from jail or prison in the United States?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Are you already having anal sex?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.